In order to define exponential functions and for later sections on transcendental functions we need to review function inverses and study their calculus properties.
A mapping \(f\) from a set \(A\) called the domain to a set \(B\) called the codomain is a function if and only if for each \(a \in A\) there exists exactly one \(b \in B\) such that \(f(a)=b\text{.}\)
Note that the definition depends on how many elements are paired. Consider \(|x|+|y|=1\text{.}\) If \(x=3/4\text{,}\) note that both \(y=1/4\) and \(y=-1/4\) work. Thus \(y\) is not a function of \(x\) because there are two outputs. This is a nice mapping which you can graph. Try it!
The inverse mapping of a mapping \(f\) from domain \(A\) to codomain \(B\) is the mapping \(f^{-1}\) from the domain \(B\) to the codomain \(A\) such that if \(f(a)=b\) then \(f^{-1}(b)=a\text{.}\)
If the inverse mapping of a function is also a function, then it is called the inverse function. For example, \(r(\theta)=\sin(\theta)\) is a function, but its inverse is not a function, because both \(r^{-1}(0)=0\) and \(r^{-1}(\pi)=0\text{.}\)
Note this definition is expressed backwards. It means the function is not the same at any two places. For example \(r(\theta)=\sin(\theta)\) is not one-to-one because \(r(0)=r(\pi)\) but \(0 \ne \pi\text{,}\) that is \(r(\theta)\) has the same value at two different places.
In general what is the relationship between the slope of a secant line on a function and the slope of the secant line on the inverse function from the matching points?